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Bible Discussion / Jehovah or Yahweh? The KJV is on the line.
« on: June 30, 2023, 04:07:23 PM »
There is some controversy whether YHWH is best represented by JEHOVAH or Yahweh.
I don't know what CLE believes, but I want to know what you guys think of this reasoning (that I found online) that leads to the conclusion that JEHOVAH is the correct representation of YHWH.
Revelation 16:5 in the KJV reads "Thou art righteous, O Lord, which art, and wast, and shalt be". Revelation 16:5 in any modern version reads "You are just in these judgments, O Holy One, you who are and who were".
Notice that "shalt be" is replaced by "holy one". This is because there is no manuscript that reads like the KJV. None. Theodore Beza, one of the editors of the Textus Receptus, believed that all the Greek manuscripts were incorrect on this, and he himself added "shalt be" to the text.
And here is the interesting part: what Beza did only makes sense if God's name is JEHOVAH! The root word of JEHOVAH is the Hebrew word HAVA, which means shall be. Remember what Beza added in Revelation 16:5? Shall be- the same root word. Beza correctly reasoned that it was odd that Revelation 16:5 did not include "shall be".
John probably originally wrote "shalt be" in the nomen sacrum form: ΟЄC. These three letters are the "compact form" of shalt be. But guess what happens when you take out the middle horizontal line of the middle letter? It becomes the "compact form" of holy one.
But this theory would only make sense if God's name is JEHOVAH. Even KJV only critics like James White agree that if what I just said is correct, the KJV is correct and the modern versions are wrong.
Also wanted to add that the name Yahweh is evil, and it does not belong in the Bible.
What do you guys think?
I don't know what CLE believes, but I want to know what you guys think of this reasoning (that I found online) that leads to the conclusion that JEHOVAH is the correct representation of YHWH.
Revelation 16:5 in the KJV reads "Thou art righteous, O Lord, which art, and wast, and shalt be". Revelation 16:5 in any modern version reads "You are just in these judgments, O Holy One, you who are and who were".
Notice that "shalt be" is replaced by "holy one". This is because there is no manuscript that reads like the KJV. None. Theodore Beza, one of the editors of the Textus Receptus, believed that all the Greek manuscripts were incorrect on this, and he himself added "shalt be" to the text.
And here is the interesting part: what Beza did only makes sense if God's name is JEHOVAH! The root word of JEHOVAH is the Hebrew word HAVA, which means shall be. Remember what Beza added in Revelation 16:5? Shall be- the same root word. Beza correctly reasoned that it was odd that Revelation 16:5 did not include "shall be".
John probably originally wrote "shalt be" in the nomen sacrum form: ΟЄC. These three letters are the "compact form" of shalt be. But guess what happens when you take out the middle horizontal line of the middle letter? It becomes the "compact form" of holy one.
But this theory would only make sense if God's name is JEHOVAH. Even KJV only critics like James White agree that if what I just said is correct, the KJV is correct and the modern versions are wrong.
Also wanted to add that the name Yahweh is evil, and it does not belong in the Bible.
What do you guys think?